I.Single choice. Directions: For each of the following questions, there are four or five choices marked A, B, C and D or E. You should decide on the best choice and fill in the Answer Table with the corresponding letter that you have chosen.
Single choice questions of locomotor system to top
1. The long bone is C
B. costal bone
D. parietal bone
2. Concerning the cervical vertebrae, the right description is: D
A. all cervical vertebrae have vertebral body and articular process
B. the first cervical vertebra has no transverse foramen
C. the end of the spinous process of the cervical vertebrae bifurcate entirely
D. the articular facets are relatively horizontal
E. the first cervical vertebra is called axis
3. Concerning the thoracic vertebrae, the right description is：D
A. they have transverse foramen
B. they bifurcate at the end of the transverse process
C. they have relatively sagittal articular facets
D. they have costal fovea on the vertebral body laterally
E. they have no transverse costal fovea
4. Concerning the lumbar vertebrae, the right description is: D
A. the body is small
B. they have costal fovea on the vertebral body laterally
C. they have transverse foramen
D. the articular facets are relatively sagittal
E. the spinous processes point obliquely downward
A. it is made up of four fused vertebrae
B. the base of it is downward
C. the auricular surface is on the anterior surface
D. the anterior sacral foramina is not communicating with sacral canal
E. have four pairs of posterior sacral foramina
6. Concerning the ribs, the right description is: E
A. the ribs are eleven in number on each side
B. 1st~8th Ribs are called true ribs
C. 8th~11th Ribs are called false ribs
D. the anterior end is called costal angle
E. the posterior end of rib enlarged to form the costal head
7. The sella turcica is a part of which bone: B
8. The sagittal and coronal sutures meet at the: A
9. Inferior angle of scapula marks the level of B
A. the 2th rib
B. the 7th rib
C. the spine of the 2nd thoracic vertebra
D. the spine of the 7th thoracic vertebra
E. the spine of the 10th thoracic vertebra
10. The structure lies on the posterior aspect of shaft of humerus is: B
A. deltoid tuberosity
B. groove for radial nerve
C. bicipital groove
D. olecranon fossa
11. Ulnar: C
A. the upper end is called the head of ulna
B. lies the lateral side of the forearm
C. the olecranon and coronoid process are on its upper end
D. the medial border is called interosseous border
E. the trochlear notch is on the body of ulnar
12. Hip bone: A
A. the obturator foramen is formed by pubis and ischium
B. inferior to the anterior inferior iliac spine is the greater sciatic notch
C. the external surface of the ala of ilium is called iliac fossa
D. the anterior superior iliac spine can not be palpated
E. consists of ilium and ischium
13. Femur: E
A. the intertrochanteric line is on the posterior surface of two trochanters
B. the intertrochanteric crest is on the anterior surface of two trochanters
C. the adductor tubercle is inferior to the medial epicondyle
D. the linea aspera is on the anterior surface of the body of femur
E. the lower end of the femur has the medial and lateral epicondyles
14. Which is the accessory structure of synovial joint? E
A. articular surface, articular disc, ligament
B. ligament ,articular capsule, articular surface
C. ligament, articular cavity, articular disc
D. articular cavity ,synovial fold, synovial bursa
E. articular labrum, ligament, synovial fold
15. Concerning the intervertebral disc, the right description is: C
A. 22 in number in adults
B. is a symphysis between vertebral arches
C. is composed of anulus fibrous and nucleus pulposus
D. the nucleus pulposus protrude anterorlaterally easily
E. the anulus fibrosus is an inner soft, highly elastic structure
16. Temporomandibular joint: D
A. is formed by mandibular fossa and head of mandible
B. has intracapsular ligment
C. the extracapsular ligament is the medial ligament
D. has the articular disc
E. the temporomandibular joint is dislocated (脱位)only backward
17. Concerning the shoulder joint, the right description is: B
A. its capsule is strong and thick
B. the head of the humerus takes part in forming the joint
C. It is a biaxial joint
D. the glenoid cavity of the scapula is deep
E. tendon of short head of biceps brachii passes though the cavity
18. Elbow joint: E
A. it is formed by the humerus and radius only
B. it is formed by the humerus and ulna only
C. the capsule is strongly thickened by ligaments anteriorly and posteriorly
D. the radial collateral ligament attaches to medial epicondyle
E. the annular ligament of radius attached to anterior and posterior margins of radial notch of ulna
30. Radiocarpal joint:
19. Concerning the hip joint, the right description is: A
A. it is formed by the head of femur and the acetabulum.
B. it is a biaxial joint
C. the iliofemoral ligament can confine .the anteflexion of the thigh excessively.
D. the fracture of femoral neck must be the intracapsular type.
E. the ischiofemoral ligament block the acetabular notch.
20. The knee joint: B
A. it is made up of the lower end of femur and the upper end of tibia only.
B. the tibial collateral ligament is attached to the medial meniscus compactly .
C. the fibular collateral ligament is attached to the lateral meniscus compactly .
D. the medial meniscus is smaller and assume “O” shape..
E. the lateral meniscus is larger and assume“C”shape.
21. Talocrural joint: A
A. is made up of lower ends of tibia and fibula, trochlea of talus
B. extension and flexion is the only movements of this joint.
C. is thickened on the anterior surface of the articular capsule with ligaments
D. the lateral ligament is called deltoid ligament.
E. this joint is also called talocalcaneal joint.
22. Concerning biceps brachii, which is true? D
A. It lies deep to the lower half of the coracbrachialis.
B. It is the chief extensor of the forearm.
C. Its long head can also extend the shoulder joint
D. The short head arise from the coracoid process
E. It flexes the wrist joint
23. Which muscle can flex the hip and knee joint? B
A. quadriceps femoris
C. adductor longus
E. adductor magnus
24. Which muscle can flex the hip joint and extend the knee joint? D
B. adductor longus
C. biceps femoris
D. quadriceps femoris
25. Which muscle can evert the foot? A
A. peroneus longus
B. the tibialis anterior
C. the tibialis posterior
D. the soleus
E. flexor digitorom brevis
26. Which muscle can invert the foot? C
A. Aperoneus longus
C. tibialis posterior
D. flexor hallucis longus
E. flexor digitorum longus
27. Which of the following muscles attaches to the anterior superior iliac spine? C
C. rectus femoris
D. vastus intermedius
28. Concerning triceps surae, the right description is: B
A. the gastrocnemius lies deeply to the soleus.
B. the tendo calcaneus inserts on the calcaneus bone.
C. it can extend the ankle joint.
D. the gastrocnemius arises from the posterior surfaces of the tibia and fibula
E. the soleus arises from the medial and lateral condyles of the femur.
29. Sternocleidomastoid: D
A. arises from the manubrium only
B. lies in the deep part of the neck
C. left sternocleidomastoid contract，the head inclines to the right.
D. right sternocleidomastoid contract，the head inclines to the right.
E. inserts into the styloid process of temporal bone.
30. The trapezius: E
A. is a superficial muscle lying on the anterior surface of the neck..
B. is long thin muscle.
C. arises from the spines of several thoracic vertebrae.
D. inserts on the clavicle only.
E. left trapezius contract, the neck inclines to the left.
Multiple choice questions of locomotor system to top
31. All of the following bony landmarks are visible on a skeleton when viewed directly from behind (posterior view) ACDE
A. medial epicondyle
B. greater tubercle
C. spiral groove
D. lesser tubercle
E. olecranon process
32. Concerning the structure of bone, the right description includ: ACD
A. the bones substance include compact and spongy bone.
B. B .the whole of the bone is covered by periosteum
C. C. the bone marrow include red and yellow marrow
D. D .the red marrow can make blood cells
E. the yellow marrow can make blood cells
33. Bones involved in forming the anterial cranial fossa include: ABCD
34. The srtuctures in the middle cranial fossa are? BCDE
A. foramen cecum
B. foramen rotundum
C. foramen ovale
D. foramen spinosum
E. trigeminal impression
35. The structures in the posterior cranial fossa are? ABD
A. hypoglossal canal
B. internal acoustic pore
C. tuberculum sellae
D. internal occipital protuberance
E. crista galli
36. The pterion is surround by (ABDE)
A. frontal bone
B. parietal bone
C. zygomatic bone
D. sphenoid bone
E. temporal bone
37. The structures on the lateral wall of the bony nasal cavity are? ABCDE
A. sphenoethmoidal recess cribriform plate
B. superior nasal concha
C. middle nasal concha
D. inferior nasal concha
E. superior nasal meatus
38. Which paranasal sinuses open into middle nasal meatus? ADE
A. A .frontal sinus
B. sphenoidal sinus
C. posterior groups of ethmoidal sinuses
D. anterior and middle groups of ethmoidal sinuses
E. maxillary sinus
39. The essential structures of a synovial joint? ABD
A. articular surface
B. articular capsule
D. articular cavity
E. articular disc
40. Concerning the pelvis, the right description include: ABCDE
A. the pelvis is formed by the two hip bones , sacrum and coccyx.
B. the greater pelvis is the portion situated superior to the terminal line.
C. the lesser pelvis is the portion situated below the terminal line.
D. the superior pelvic aperture is formed by the terminal line.
E. the pubic arch is formed by the two sides conjoined rami of the pubis and ischium
41. Which joint has no articular disc ? ACD
B． sternoclavicular joint
C． elbow joint
E． knee joint
42. The ligaments connect the adjacent vertebra except AB
A. anterior longitudinal ligament
B. posterior longitudinal ligament
C. ligamenta flava
D. interspinal ligament
E. supraspinal ligament
43. Sternoclavicular joint: AC
A. is the only joint between the upper limb and the trunk
B. is formed by the sternal end of the clavicle and the clavicular notch of sternum
C. its capsule is thin and loose
D. has a articular disc in the capsule
E. it can elevate and depress only
44. Where are false about the capsule of the hip joint ACDE
A. it is attached along the intertrochanteric crest posteriorly.
B. it is attached along the intertrochanteric line anteriorly.
C. proximally, it is attached to the margin of the lunate surface
D. it is directly related to the sciatic nerve posteriorly.
E. the iliofemoral ligament lies in the lower and posterior part of the fibrous capsule.
45. The articulations of wrist join consist of ABC
A. distal end of radius
B. scaphoid bone
C. triquetral bone
D. pisiform bone
E. trapezium bone
46. Which aponeurosis form the anterior layer of sheath of rectus abdominis (above the arcuate line)? AE
A. the aponeurosis of obliquus externus abdominis
B. the posterior layer of the aponeurosis of obliquus internus abdominis
C. the aponeurosis of transversus abdominis
D. the aponeurosis of rectus abdominis
E. the anterior layer of the aponeurosis of obliquus internus abdominis.
47. Inguinal canal： ABD
A. anterior wall is aponeurosis of obliquus externus abdominis
B. inferior wall is inguinal ligament
C. posterior wall is transverse fascia only
D. superior wall is obliquus internus abdominis and transversus abdominis
E. round lig. of uterus pass through it in female
48. All the following muscles have an insertion on the radius: ABCD
B. pronator quadratus
C. pronator teres
D. biceps brachii
49. Regarding the deltoid, the right description include(ACDE)
A. It is the most powerful abductor of the arm
B. Its anterior part is a strong flexor and lateral rotation of humerus
C. It is inserted into the deltoid tuberosity of humerus
D. It forms the rounded contour (轮廓) of the shoulder
E. It protects and acts the shoulder joint
50. Concerning the triceps brachii, the right description include(AD)
A. Its long head arise from the infraglenoid tuberosity of scapula
B. Its lateral head arise from the posterior surface of the humerus below the groove for radial nerve
C. Its medial head arise from the posterior surface of the humerus above the groove for radial nerve
D. The strong tendon of it is inserted into the olecranon of ulna
E. Its medial head can extend and adduct the shoulder joint
51. Regarding the pronator teres, the right description include(AD)
A. It arises from the medial epicondyle of humerus and the deep fascia of forearm
B. It only pronates forearm
C. It only flexes elbow joint
D. It belongs to the superficial layer of the anterior group of the muscles of forearm
E. It flexes the thumb
52. Which muscles have the function of opposition(对掌)(BCD)
A. Abductor pollicis brevis
B. Flexor pollicis brevis
C. Opponens pollicis
D. Opponens digiti minimi
53. The medial rotator of the arm are ABCD
A. pectoralis major
B. latissimus dorsi
54. Pectoralis major: ABCD
a) arises from the medial half of the clavicle
b) arises from the sternum and 1～6 costal cartilages.
c) inserts on the crest of greater tubercle of humerus.
d) can flex, adduct and rotate the arm medially.
e) lies deep to the serratus anterior.
55. The latissimus dorsi: DE
A. covers the upper part of the chest.
B. insert on the crest of greater tubercle of humerus.
C. arises from the spines of all thoracic vertebrae.
D. can extend, adduct and medially rotate humerus at shoulder joint.
E. dorsal thoracic nerve supply it..
56. The masticatory muscles include (ABCE)
A. temporal muscle.
B. masseter muscle
C. medial pterygoid
D. orbicularis oris
E. lateral pterygoid
57. Gluteus maximus originates from ABD
A. gluteal surface of ilium
B. dorsal aspect of sacrum
D. sacrotuberous lig.
E. sacrospinous lig.
58. The posterior facial compartment of the thigh consists of ABCD
A. biceps femoris
D. sciatic nerve
E. tensor fasciae latae
59. Which structures do pass through the hiatus or foramen of the diaphragm? (ABCDE)
C. inferior vena cava
D. vagus nerve
E. thoracic duct
60. Sheath of rectus abdominis is formed by BCD
A. transverse fascia
B. Aponeurosis of obliquus externus abdominis
C. Aponeurosis of obliquus internus abdominis
D. Aponeurosis of transversus abdominis
E. parietal peritoneum
II.Explain the following terms.
1. Intervertebral foramen,
2. Promontory of sacrum,
3. Sternal angle,
4. Pecten pubis,
5. tibial tuberosity,
6. Angle of mandible,
11. Intervertebral disc,
12. Pubic arch,
13. Synovial sheath,
14. Linea alba,
15. Inguinal ligament,
16. Arcuate line,
17. Inguinal canal,
III.Answer the following Questions
1. Briefly describe the general structure of the bone
2. Briefly describe the shape and structures of cervical, thoracic, and lumber vertebrae and sacrum
3. Briefly describe the classification, shape, and structures of ribs.
4. Briefly describe the shape and structures of sternum.
5. Briefly describe the bone markings of scapula, humerus, ulna and radius, hip bone, femur, tibia and fibula.
6. Write out the essential and accessory structures of the synovial joint.
7. Briefly describe joints of the vertebral bodies and physiological curves of vertebral column.
8. Briefly describe the composition and shape of thoracic cage.
9. Master the composition, portions and apertures of pelvis.
10. Briefly describe the composition, structural features and movement of the shoulder joint, elbow joint and wrist joint, hip joint, knee joint and ankle joint.
11. Briefly describe the important structure of internal surface of base of skull.
12. Describe the origin, insertion, action and nerve supply of ①trapezius, ②latissimus dorsi, ③deltoid, ④biceps brachii and ⑤triceps.
13. Describe the origin, insertion, action and nerve supply of ①gluteus maxim, ②piriformis, ③gastrocnemius and soleus, ④tibialis posterior, ⑤sartorius, ⑥quadriceps femoris, ⑦tibialis anterior.
14. Briefly describe the composition and shape of diaphragm
15. Write out the composed of masticatory muscles.
16. Narrate the composition , feature and movement of the shoulder joint.
17. Narrate the composition , feature and movement of the elbow joint.
18. Narrate the composition , feature and movement of the hip joint.
19. Narrate the composition , feature and movement of the knee joint.
20. .Describe the difference between male and female pelvises.
21. Narrate the structures of bones.
I． Single choice. For each of the following questions, there are four or five choices marked A, B, C and D or E. You should decide on the best choice and fill in the Answer Table with the corresponding letter that you have chosen.
1.The upper respiratory tract consists of
B.Nose, and pharynx
C.Nose, pharynx, and larynx
D.Nose, pharynx, larynx, and trachea
E.Nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, and principal bronchi
2.The maxillary sinuses open into
A.Superior nasal meatuses
B.Middle nasal meatuses
C.Inferior nasal meatuses
3.Which sinus opens into superior nasal meatus
C.Anterior and middle groups of ethmoidal sinuses
D.Posterior group of ethmoidal sinuses
4.Which cartilage is ring-shaped
5.Ventricle of larynx is located
A.Above vestibular fold
B.Above vocal fold
C.Below vocal fold
6.The narrowest part of laryngeal cavity is
A.Aperture of larynx
D.Fissure of glottis
E.Ventricle of larynx
7.The fissure glottis is
A.Between the two vestibular folds
B.Between the two vocal folds only
C.Between the level of rima vestibuli and the fissure of glottis
D.Superior to the rima vestibuli
E.Inferior to the rima vestibule
8.From anterior to posterior, the arrangement of main structures of the root of lung is
A.Principal bronchi, pulmonary artery, pulmonary veins
B.Pulmonary artery, principal bronchi, pulmonary veins
C.Pulmonary veins, pulmonary artery, principal bronchi
D.Principal bronchi, pulmonary veins, pulmonary artery
E.Pulmonary artery, pulmonary veins, principal bronchi
9.From superior to inferior, the arrangement of main structures of the root of left lung is
A.Principal bronchi, pulmonary artery, pulmonary veins
B.Pulmonary artery, principal bronchi, pulmonary veins
C.Pulmonary veins, pulmonary artery, principal bronchi
D.Principal bronchi, pulmonary veins, pulmonary artery
E.Pulmonary artery, pulmonary veins, principal bronchi
10.The parietal pleura is divided into
11.The pleural cavity is the potential space between the
A.Parietal and visceral pleurae
B.Costal and diaphragmatic pleurae
C.Costal and mediastinal pleurae
D.Costal and cupula pleurae
E.Diaphragmatic and mediastinal pleurae
12.The lowest extent of the pleural cavity, into which lung tissue does not extend, is known as the:
13．Which feature is found only in the left lung?
D.Superior lobar bronchus
14. The oblique fissure of the right lung separates which structures?
A.Lower lobe from lingula
B.Lower lobe from upper lobe only
C.Lower lobe from both upper and middle lobes
D.Lower lobe from middle lobe only
E.Upper from middle lobe
15. Which statement is true about the right lung?
A.it is slightly smaller than the left lung
B.it has a lingular segmental bronchus
C.it occupies the rightmost portion of the mediastinum
D.its upper lobar bronchus lies behind and above the right pulmonary artery
E.it has the right phrenic nerve passing posterior to the lung root
16. A sick person, lying supine in bed, aspirates (breathes in) some fluid into her lungs while swallowing. It would most likely end up in which of the following bronchopulmonary segments?
A.anterior segmental bronchus of right superior lobe
B.medial segmental bronchus of right middle lobe
C.superior segmental bronchus of right inferior lobe
D.medial basal segmental bronchus of left inferior lobe
E.inferior segmental bronchus of lingular lobe
17. The minor (horizontal) fissure separates:
A.The lower lobe from the lingula
B.The upper lobe from the lingula
C.The lower lobe from both the middle and upper lobes
D.The lower lobe from the middle lobe
E.The middle lobe from the upper lobe
18. The palatine tonsil lies
A.In oral cavity
B.Between palatoglossal arch and palatopharyngeal arch
C.In pharyngeal recess
D.In piriform recess
E.In posterior wall of pharynx
19.Pharyngeal opening of auditory tube lies in
20.The piriform recess lies in
D.Isthmus of fauces
E.Vestibule of larynx
21.The major duodenal papilla lies in
A.Superior part of duodenum
B.Descending part of duodenum
C.Horizontal part of duodenum
D.Ascending part of duodenum
22.The opening of hepatopancreatic ampulla lied in
A.Superior portion of duodenum
D.Major duodenal papilla
E.Minor duodenal papilla
23.The major digestive gland is
24.The parotid duct opens into
B.Cheek mucosa near second molar of upper jaw
C.Root of tongue
E.Isthmus of fauces
25.Which structure doesn’t belong to stomach
C.Antrum of stomach
E.Fundus of stomach
26.The limitation of pyloric antrum and pyloric canal is
E.Lesser curvature of stomach
27.The beginning of jejunum is
C.Transverse part of duodenum
E.Left colic flexure
28.Hepatoduodenal ligament containes
C.Hepatic portal vein
D.Left gastric v.
29.The dentate line is formed by
B.Transverse fold of rectum
30.Which structure does divide the peritoneal cavity into supracolic and infracolic compartment?
31.Which gland is not a major salivary gland
32.The true (physiological) left lobe of the liver is separated from the caudate lobe by the:
B.Lesser omentum and ligamentum venosum
C.Right triangular ligament
D.Left triangular ligament
E.None of the above
33.The cystic duct joins which of the following duct to form the common bile duct?
C.Common hepatic duct
E.Accessory pancreatic duct
34.Under nonpathological conditions the following structures can usually be palpated, EXCEPT:
C.Descending abdominal aorta
E.Descending sigmoid colon
35. Which is not a boundary of the epiploic (omental) foramen?
B.Caudate lobe of the liver
C.First part of the duodenum
36. The soft palate is active in all of the following except:
37. Most paranasal sinuses and/or air cells drain, directly or indirectly, into the:
38. Irrigation of the maxillary sinus through its opening is a supportive measure to accelerate the resolution of a maxillary sinus infection. Which of the following nasal spaces is the most likely approach to the sinus opening?
39. The nasolacrimal duct empties into which part of the nasal cavity?
40. Which structure forms a border of the tonsillar fossa?
D.Lateral glossoepiglottic fold
E.Medial pterygoid plate
41. The communication between the pharynx and the nasal cavity is known as the:
42. Which part of the intestine is most firmly fixed anatomically?
43.The left lobe of the liver is divided from the quadrate lobe by the
B.Falciform ligament and ligamentum teres.
44. The lesser omentum
A.contains the splenic vein.
B.contains the right gastroepiploic artery.
C.is attached to the fissure for the ligamentum teres.
D.contains the left gastric artery.
E.has none of the above properties.
45. The renal fascia
A.is covered by the periorenal fat.
B.is located outside the pararenal fat.
C.is located inside the pararenal fat.
D.adheres closely to the kidney.
E.has none of the above properties.
46. In the stomach, the:
A.Fundus lies above the level of the oesophageal opening.
B.Body extends inferiorly to the angular notch.
C.Right border is known as its greater curvature
D.Cardiac orifice is closelv related to the aorta
E.Blood supply arises from midgut arteries.
47. In the small intestine ,the:
A.Duodenojejunal flexure lies on the left of the first lumbar vertebra.
B.Jejunum has a thicker wall than the ileum.
C.Arterial arcades are less numerous in the jejunum than in the ileum.
D.Root of the mesentery crosses the left psoas muscle
E.Jejunum lies above and to the left of the ileum
48. Which of the following statements concerning palate are true except
A. It constitutes the roof and lateral wallof the mouth
B. It consists of the anterior hard palate and the posterior soft palate
C. The hard palate is covered by the periosteum and mucous membrane
D. The uvula suspends from the middle of the free lower border of soft palate
49. Which of the following statements concerning pharynx are true except
A. is the common passage of the alimentary and respiratory systems
B. extends from the base of the skull to the level of the seventh cervical vertebra
C. is divided into three parts: nasal, oral and laryngea1
D. is behind the nasal cavity, the mouth and the larynx
50. The pharyngeal opening of auditory tube lies:
A.behind the superior nasal concha
B.behind the middle nasal concha
C.behind the inferior nasal concha
D.behind the inferior nasal meatus
51.The following statements concerning teeth are true except
A.There are two sets of teeth in man, deciduous and permanent
B.All teeth have a crwon, a neck and a root
C.The teeth consist of the dentin, the enamel and the cement
D. The alveolar processes are covered by the gums
52. Which of the following statements concerning esophagus are true except
A. connects the pharynx with the stomach
B. thoracic artery lies to the right of the esophagus
C. descends in the front of the vertebral colum
D. pierces the diaphragm at the level of the tenth thoracic vertebra
53. The common bile duct lies
A. within hepatogastric ligament
B. behind portal vein
C. in front of head of the pancreas
D. within lesser omentum
54. Which of the following structures has the colic bands, haustras of colon and the epiloic appendices
55.Which of the following structures does not take part in formation of the isthmus of fauces
B. palatoglossal arch
D.body of tongue
56.The length between the first narrow part of the esophagus and the incisure teeth is about
57. The posterior part of the left longtitudinal sulcus of liver contains
B.inferior vena cava
C.ligamentum teres hepatis
58. The shortest digestive canal is
59. which of the folloing features characterizes the subcutaneous portion of the external sphineter ani muscle?
A. it dilates the anus on contraction
B. it is absent in about 40 persent of cadaver dissections
C. it inserts on the skin in front of the anus
D. it is an involuntary muscle
60. Which of the following cartilages is completely ring-shaped
A. the thyroid cartilage
B. the arytenoid cartilages
C. the epiglottic cartilage
D. the cricoid cartilage
E the tracheal cartilage
61. Where is the place that the ligation of ductus deferents oe vasectomy is performed usually?
A. the testicular part of the ductus deferents
B. the funicular part of the ductus deferents
C. the inguinal part of the ductus deferents
D. the pelvic part of the ductus deferents
E. the terminal part of the ductus deferents
62.The superior extremity of kidney is in neighborhood of
B.Superior portion of duodenum
C.Head of pancreas
63.Which structure belong to renal cortex
A.Minor renal calices
64.Female ureter crosses above uterine artery
A.Under uterine artery
B.In front of uterine artery
C.Inside uterine artery
E.Lateral to uterine artery
65.The trigone of bladder lies
A.In internal surface of fundus of bladder
B.Below apex of urinary bladder
C.Body of bladder
D.Below neck of bladder
E.In base of prostate
66.Second constriction of male urethra lies in
A.Prostatic portion of urethra
D.External orifice of urethra
E.Internal urethral orifice
67.The pelvic part of ureter
A.Descends immediately behind the internal iliac artery.
B.Crosses lateral to the external vessels, umbilical artery, obturator nerve and vessels.
C.Crosses posteriorly over the ductus deferens (male).
D.Passes lateral to the fornex of the vagina and is crossed by uterine artery.
E.Ends on the inferior of the urinary bladder as the internal urethral orifice.
68.The second stricture of male urethra is at
A.Internal orifice urethra.
E.External orifice urethra.
A.attaches to the anterior surface of the testes.
B.Is the storehouse for sperm.
C.can be divided into head, neck, body and tail.
D.secrets male hormone.
E.consists of rete testis.
70.Concerning the epididymis, all the following are correct, EXCEPT:
A.Its tail is continuous with the vas deferens
B.Sperm enter the head via the straight tubules and efferent ducts
C.It produces sperm
D.It is enclosed within the tunica vaginalis
E.It is vascularized by the testicular artery
71.Which one is wrong about the prostate?
A.It is a chestnut-shaped organ.
B.It may be divided into anterior, middle, posterior and two lateral lobes.
C.The urethra passes through the middle lobe of the gland.
D.There is prostatic sulcus along the middle line on the posterior surface.
E.The ejaculatory duct penetrates the base and opens on seminal colliculus.
72.The internal reproductive organ of the female is
B.Lesser lips of pudendum.
C.Bulb of vestibule
E.Great vestibular gland.
73.Which one is wrong about the uterus?
A.It can be divided into three parts-fundus, body and neck.
B.The isthmus is a slight constriction at the junction between the neck and body.
C.The lower part of the neck can insert into the vagina.
D.The cavity in the uterus is called cavity of uterus.
E.The body is bent forward at the junction with the neck (anteflection).
74.Which one is wrong about the position of the uterus
A.Its inferior end is above the ischial spine.
B.The urinary bladder is in front of it.
C.The uterine tube, ovaries, broad ligament are on both sides of it.
D.It is behind the rectum .
E.Its lower part penetrates the urogenital diaphragm.
75.The ligaments that protect the uterus from prolapse is
A.Broad ligament of uterus.
B.Suspensory ligament of ovary.
C.Round ligament of uterus.
D.Cardinal ligament of uterus.
A.is situated in the ovary fossa between the common and internal artery.
B.is a retroperitoneal viscera.
C.is connected to the uterus by proper ligament of ovary at its superior extremity.
D.is attached to the front of the broad ligament of uterus by mesoovarium.
E.is suspended to the pelvic wall by suspensory ligament of ovary.
77.Which one is wrong about the uterine tube
A.It is situated on the upper margins of the broad ligament of uterus.
B.Its medial end opens into the cavity of uterus by uterine orifice.
C.Its lateral end open into peritoneal cavity by abdominal orifice.
D.It can be divided into three part: isthmus, ampulla, and infundibulum.
E.It is usually distinguished from the small intestine by fimbriae.
78.Fertilization usually occures in
A.Cavity of uterus.
B.Uterine part of uterine tube..
C.Isthmus of uterine tube.
D.Ampulla of uterine tube.
E.Infundibulum of uterine tube.
79.Which one is wrong about the vagina
A.The upper end surrounds the lower part of neck of uterus.
B.The anterior wall is longer than the posterior one.
C.The posterior fornix of vagina is near the rectouterine pouch.
D.The anterior wall contacts with urinary bladder and urethra.
E.The posterior wall contacts with the anterior wall of rectum.
II.Explain the following terms
Isthmus of fauces, Piriform recess, Dentate line, Anal pectin, White line, Porta hepatis, Tonsil ring, Pharyngeal recess, Angular incisure, Tubal torus, Bare area of the liver, Hepatopancreatic ampulla of Vater, Paranasal sinuses, Carina of trachea, Root of lung, Pleura, Mediastinum, Renal pedicle, Renal region, Trigone of bladder, Ejaculatory duct, Anteversion of uterus, Anteflex of uterus, Fornix of vagina
1. Describe briefly the shape and divisions of the stomach.
2. Describe the constriced parts of the esophagus.
3. Narrate briefly the locations of three salivatory glands and the openings of salivatory ducts.
4. Describe briefly the composition of the extrahepatic bile ducts.
5. Narrate the difference between the jejum and the ilum.
6. Narrate the location of the appendix, the surface projection of the root of the appendix, and how to find the appendix during operation according to anatomical knowledge you learned.
7. Narrate the names, locations and openings of the paranasal sinuses.
8. Describe the difference between the left anf right principle bonchi.
9. Narrate the project of the inferior margins of lung and pleurae.
10. Narrate the location, structures and coverings of the kidey.
11. Describe the subdivision and the constricted parts of the ureter.
12. Narrate which parts are obstructed by the ureteric calculus, when it is expelled from the kidney following the urinary flow.
13. Narrate the subdivision, the curved parts, the constricted and expanded parts of the male urethra.
14. Narrate the location, the division, the postur and the supporting structures of the uterus.
15. Describe the parts and structures of pharynx.
16. Briefly describe the three constrictions of esophagus.
17. Briefly describe the location, shape, parts of stomach.
18. Briefly describe the location, shape and structures of duodenum.
19. Briefly describe the location and shapes or structures of rectum.
20. Briefly describe the location, shape and surface markings of liver.
21. Briefly describe the location and shape of pancreas.
22. Briefly describe the composition of extrahepatic parts of biliary system.
23. Write out the producing site and the discharging pathway of the bile.
24. Briefly describe the surface marking of the root of vermiform appendix and fundus of gallbladder.
25. describe the positions and openings of the paranasal sinuses.
26. Briefly describe the features of left and right principal bronchi.
27. Briefly describe the shape and structures of lung
28. list the arrangement of main structures of the root of lung.
29. Briefly describe the definitions of pleura and pleural cavities; the portions of parietal pleura, pleural recesses, and surface markings of inferior margins of lungs and pleura
30. Briefly describe the location, shape and internal structure of kidney
31. Briefly describe the structures passing through the hilus of kidney, structures in renal sinus, and capsules enclosing the kidney.
32. List the segments and constrictiones the the ureter.
33. Briefly describe the location, shape and internal structure of urinary bladder
34. Briefly describe the features of the urethrae in male and female.
35. Briefly describe the location and shape of testis and epididymis.
36. Briefly describe the course of ductus deferens and composition of spermatic cord
37. Briefly describe the location and shape of prostate
38. Briefly describe the features of the male urethrae.
39. Briefly describe the location and lig. of ovary.
40. Briefly describe the location, shapes or potions uterine tubes.
41. Master the location, posture, shapes, portions, and cavity of the uterus
42. Briefly describe the supporting structures( lig.) for the uterus.
I．Single choice. For each of the following questions, there are four or five choices marked A, B, C and D or E. You should decide on the best choice and fill in the Answer Table with the corresponding letter that you have chosen.
1． Which of the following is true of the inferior thyroid arteries?
A.They arise from the external carotid arteries
B.They cross over the superior cervical sympathetic ganglion
C.They supply most of the anterior surface of the thyroid gland
D.They often supply all four parathyroid glands
2． The sternocostal surface of the heart is formed primarily by the anterior wall of which heart chamber?
4． You are caring for a 68-year-old male who has copious amounts of fluid in the left pleural cavity due to acute pleurisy. When you examine him as he sits up in bed (trunk upright), where would the fluid tend to accumulate?
4．The portion of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib is called the :
5．In cardiac surgery it is sometimes necessary to clamp off all arterial flow out of the heart. This could be done within the pericardial sac by inserting the index finger immediately behind the two great arteries and compressing them with the thumb of the same hand. The index finger would have to be inserted into which space?
C.Oblique pericardial sinus
E.Transverse pericardial sinus
6．During a heart transplant procedure, the surgeon inserted his left index finger through the transverse pericardial sinus, and then pulled forward on the two large vessels lying ventral to his finger. Which vessels were these?
A.Pulmonary trunk and brachiocephalic trunk
B.Pulmonary trunk and aorta
C.Pulmonary trunk and superior vena cava
D.Superior vena cava and aorta
E.Superior vena cava and right pulmonary artery
7．A needle inserted into the 9th intercostal space along the midaxillary line would enter which space?
E.Oblique pericardial sinus
8．The pleural cavity near the cardiac notch is known as the:
9．Blockage of which of the following arteries would lead to ischemia of the apex of the heart?
A.Anterior interventricular (descending)
C.Posterior interventricular (descending)
10．Which valves would be open during ventricular systole?
A.Aortic and pulmonary
B.Aortic and tricuspid
C.Mitral and aortic
D.Tricuspid and mitral
E.Tricuspid and pulmonary
11．Which chamber's anterior wall forms most of the sternocostal surface of the heart?
12．Which statement is true of the right atrioventricular valve?
A.it is also called the mitral valve
B.it is open during ventricular diastole
C.it transmits oxygenated blood
D.it is opened by the pull of chordae tendineae
E.it consists of 2 leaflets
13．During fetal life and sometimes persisting into the adult there is an opening between the right and left atria; this opening is called the:
14.Which heart valve has leaflets described as "anterior, left and right"?
15. Which structure does NOT lie in the coronary sulcus?
C.right coronary artery
D.right marginal artery
E.left coronary artery
16. While attempting to suture the distal end of a coronary bypass onto the anterior interventricular artery, the surgeon accidentally passed the needle through the adjacent vein. Which vein was damaged?
A.Anterior cardiac vein
C.Great cardiac vein
D.Middle cardiac vein
E.Small cardiac vein
17. In the midregion of the thorax the thoracic duct lies immediately posterior to the:
D.superior vena cava
18. Most of the drainage of the thoracic body wall reaches the superior vena cava via the azygos vein. A notable exception is the left superior intercostal vein, which normally drains into the:
A.Left brachiocephalic vein
B.Left bronchial vein
C.Left pulmonary vein
D.Left subclavian vein
E.Superior vena cava
19. A patient was diagnosed with bleeding ulcer of the lesser curvature of the stomach. Which artery is most likely involved?
C.Left gastro-omental (epiploic)
D.Right gastro-omental (epiploic)
20. The spleen contacts all of the following organs EXCEPT:
C.Left colic flexure
D.Tail of the pancreas
21. Which vessel courses across the mediastinum in an almost horizontal fashion?
A.Left subclavian artery
B.Left subclavian vein
C.Left brachiocephalic vein
D.Left internal jugular vein
E.Left common carotid artery
22. The fundus of the stomach receives its arterial supply from the:
23. Short gastrc arteries usually arise from the
B.Caudate lobe of the liver.
D.Superficical mesenteric artery.
24. which of the following arteries is not a branch of celiac artery.
A.Right gastroepiploic artery.
B.Left gastroepiploic artery.
C.Superior pancreaticoduodenral artery.
D.Inferior pancreaticoduodeneal artery.
25. The superior mesenteric artery does not give off
A.Jejunal and ileal arteries
C.Middle colic artery
D.Superior rectal artery
E.Right colic artery
26. Which of the following arteries is a branch of the inferior mesenteric artery?
A.Right colic artery.
B.Left colic artery.
C.Inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery.
27. What portion of the rectum drain into the portal circulation
D.Middle and inferior 2/3
E.All of the rectum
28. The portal vein:
A.drains venous blood from the whole of the intra-abdominal alimentary tract.
B.receives the splenic vein as a tributary.
C.receives branches from the liever.
D.is closely related to the bile duct and common hepatic artery.
E.gains tributaries from the anterior abdominal wall.
29.Which structure does belong to the right atrium?
A.Orifice of the coronary sinus
D.Orifices of the pulmonary veins
30.Which structure does belong to the right ventricle?
A.Orifice of the superior vena cava
B.Orifice of the inferior vena cava
C.Orifice of the coronary sinus
D.Orifices of the pulmonary veins
E.Orifice of the pumonary trunk
31.Which structure does belong to the left ventricle?
A.Orifice of the superior vena cava
B.Orifice of the inferior vena cava
C.Orifice of the coronary sinus
D.Orifices of the pulmonary veins
32.The pacemaker for the heart is ordinarily the:
C.Atrioventricular bundle (of His)
E.Membranous interventricular septum
33.The right coronary artery arises from
A.Right aortic sinus
B.Left aortic sinus
D.Orifice of the coronary sinus
E.Orifice of the pulmonary trunk
34.The branches of the aortic arch don’t include
B.Left common carotid artery
C.Left subclavian artery
D.Some small branche to trachea and bronchus
35.Which of the following arteries is not a branch of the external carotid artery
A.Superior thyroid a.
D.Inferior thyroid a.
E.Superficial temporal a.
36.Concerning the carotid sinus, the right description is
A.It is a dilatation at the posterior wall of the common carotid artery.
B.It is a dilatation at the point of the bifurcation of the common carotid artery.
C.It is a small ball struture behind the point of division of the common carotid artery.
D.It is a chemoreceptor.
E.All above are wrong.
37.The facial artery comes from
A.Internal carotid A.
B.External carotid A.
E.superficial temporal A.
38.Which artery is not derived from the arteries of the celiac trunk'?
39.The short gastric arteries come from
B.Right gastric a
C.Left gastric a
E.Superior mesenteric a
40.The axillary artery
A.begins from the medial border of the ist rib
B.gives off the internal thoracic artery
C.ends at the lower border of the teres minor
D.its branches distribute to the pectoralis major m. only
E.gives off the anterior intercostal artery
41.Deep palmar arch
A.is formed by the anastomosis of the terminal part of the radial artery with deep branch of the ulnar atery
B.is formed by the anastomosis of the terminal part of the ulnar artery with deep branch of the radial artery
C.lies superficial to the tendons of flexor muscles
D.lies superficial to the lumbricales
E.gives off three common palmar digital ateries
42.Which is wrong about the internal iliac artery
A.It arises from the common artery.
B.It is a short trunk descending into the lesser pelvis.
C.The ureter runs anterior to it.
D.It gives the inferior epigastric a.
E.The internal iliac vein accompanies the artery on its medial side.
43.The internal pudendal artery
A.arises from the anterior trunk of the internal iliac artery.
B.passes through the lesser sciatic foramen to enter the gluteal region.
C.runs along the lateral surface of the obturator internus.
D.supplies the perineum.
E.runs below the pudendal nerve in the pudendal canal.
44.Which artery is palpable deep to the ingunal ligament
A.Anterior tibial a.
D.Profunda femoris artery
45.The following structure which may be damaged by supracondylar femoral fracture
C.Common peroneal n.
D.Anterior tibial a.
E.Posterior tibial a.
46.The anterior tibial artery:
A.is abranch of the femoral a.
B.is related to the medial malleolus.
C.divides into medial and lateral plantar arteries.
D.supplies the dorsiflexor muscles.
E.is palpable in the foot.
47.The following statements about the superior vena cava are true, EXCEPT:
A.It begins at the level of the right first costal cartilage.
B.It receives the right and left brachiocephalic and the azygos veins.
C.It follows the right phrenic nerve.
D.It follows the right vagus nerve.
E.It enters the right atrium.
48.The cephalic vein
A.arises from the medial side of dorsal venous rete of hand
B.accompany the radial artery
C.drain into the brachial v.
D.receives the superficial veins of the hand and the medial side of the forearm
E.runs along the lateral side of the biceps brachi.
49.Concerning the basilic vein, which is true?
A.begins at the ulnar side of the dorsal venous network of hand
B.begins at the radial part of the dorsal venous network of hand
C.ascends along the lateral part of the arm
D.pass through the groove between the pectoralis major and deltoid
E.end in the subclavian vein
50.The azygos vein commences as the continuation of the
A.Right ascending lumbar vein
B.Left ascending lumbar vein
D.Accessory hemiazygos vein
E.Posterior intercostal veins of the right side
51.Obstruction of the portal vein may result in all of the following, EXCEPT:
A.Dilation of veins around the umbilicus
B.Varicosities of the great saphenous V.
C.Dilation of veins around the lower esophagus and, possibly,vomiting of blood
D.Enlargement of veins along the large bowel
E.Bleeding into the rectum or anal canal
52.Enlargement of the superficial inguinal lymph nodes may be a sequel to:
A.a sore on the big toe
B.a boil on the buttock
C.an infected Bartholine's (greater vestibular) gland
D.a sore in the popliteal fossa
E.a sore on the fifth toe
52.The thoracic duct begins at the
A.Right lumbar trunk
B.Left lumbar trunk
E.Left bronchomediastinal trunk
53.The thoracic duct ends by opening into the
A.Right venous angle
B.Left venous angle
C.Left subclavian vein
D.Left jugular vein
E.Right subclavian vein
II.Expalin the following the terms.
Artery, Vein, Fossa ovalis, Conus arteriosus, Arterial ligament, Carotid sinus, Carotid body, Superficial palmar arch, Deep palmar arch, Azygos vein, Thoracic duct
III. Answer the following questions
1. Narrate the location and relations of the heart.
2. Describe the composition of the conducting system of heart.
3. Describe which arteries supply the stomach.
4. Narrate the composition, tributaries and collecting region of the portal vein.
5. Narrate the anastomoses between the hepatic portal venous system and the vena cava
6. Narrate the origin, the course and the collecting region of the thoracic duct.
7. Briefly describe the location, surface structures of the heart.
8. Briefly describe the structures in four chambers of heart
9. Write out the components of the conduction system of the heart.
10. Briefly describe the distribution of the right and left coronary artery.
11. Briefly describe the location, drainage and opening of coronary sinus
12. Briefly describe the branches off the aortic arch.
13. Briefly describe the position and fnction of carotid sinus and carotid glomus.
14. Briefly describe the branches of external carotid artery and subclavian artery .
15. Describe the main arterial tree of the upper and lower limb.
16. Briefly describe the branches of abdominal aorta.
17. Briefly describe the branch supplying of the celiac trunk, sup. and inf. mesenteric a..
18. Name three sites where peripheral pulse may be palpated. Where are these vessels liable to injury?
19. Describe the lymph drainage of the breast.
20. Describe the beginnings, course and endings of cephalic and basilic veins.
21.Describe the beginnings, course and endings of greater and lesser saphenous veins.
22.Describe the groups, area of drainage of the axillary lymph nodes.
23. Briefly describe the main tributaries of inf. vena cava.
24. Write out the the formation and tributaries of portal v., and the places of portal-systemic venous anastomoses.
25. Briefly describe the beginning, ending, and drainage of thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct.
26. Briefly describe the location, shape and structures of spleen
28.Describe how it can be transported to the appendice when a drug was injected into the cephalic vein.
1. Master the layers and divisions of wall of eyeball and their functiones.
2. Master the form, position and functions of lens
3. Master the production and circulation of aqueous humor.
4. Master the name of ocular muscles, functions and innervation.
5. Master the position of lacrimal gland，the form of lacrimal passages and its opening.
6. Master the structure of tympanic membrane, position and parts.
7. Master the position of tympanic cavity, the main structures on the 6 walls.
8. Master the position, divisions, opening, and its functions of pharyngotympanic tube，the characteristic of pharyngotympanic tube in infant.
9. Master the position and divisions of internal ear.
10. Master the position of receptors of hearing and equilibration.
The nervous system
1.Which of the following statements concening preganglionic sympathetic fibers is false？
（A）They arise from the intermediolateral cell column
（B）They project without synapse to the adrenal medulla
（C）Their terminals elaborate acetylcholine．
（D）They are found in splanchnic nerves
（E）They synapse in the myenteric Plexus
2．Which of the following ganglia does not contain postganglionic parasympathetic neurons？
3．The viscera are insensitive to all of the following stimuli EXCEPT
4．Parasympathetic stimulation results in all of the following responses EXCEPT
（A）contraction of the ductus deferens，
（B）secretion of the salivay glands．
5．All of the following statements concerning gray communicating rami are correct EXCEPT
（A）contain preganglionic sympathetic fibers．
（B）are found at sll spinal cord levels
（C）contain GVE fibers．
（D）contain postganglionic sympathetic fibers．
（E）are gray because they contain no myelinated fibers
6、Postganglionic sympathetic cholinergic fibers innervate the
（D）trigone of the urinary bladder．
7．Sympathectomy of the superior cervical ganglion results In all of the following signs EXCEPT
（A）vasodilation of the cutaneous vessels of the face．
（C）sweating of the face．
8．Destruction of the ciliary ganglion results in which one of the following deficits？
（B）Loss of corneal reflex
（C）Loss of lacrimation
（D）Loss of direct pupillary reflex
9．All of the following statements concerning the sacral division of the ANS are correct EXCEPT
（A）it innervates the transverse colon．
（B）it innervates the descending colon，
（C）it innervates the detrusor muscle of the urinary bladder
（D）it includes sacral segments S2，S3，andS4．
（E）its postganglionic parasympathetic neurons are found in，on，or near the walls of the organs that they innervate．
10．A lesion of the dominant inferior parietal lobule could result in all of the following deficits EXCEPT
（A）the inabilityto perform calculations．
（B）the inability to identify fingers．
（C）the inability to write from dictation．
（E）difficulty in dressing．
11．A lesion resultingln a nonfluent expressive aphasia would most like be found in the
12．Broca’s aphasia is frequently associated with
（D）an upper motor neuronlesion．
（E）visual field deficits．
13．All of the following statements concerning the parietal lobe are correct EXCEPT
（A）it contains the primary somatosensory area．
（B）it contains the angular gyrus．
（C）it contains the supramarginal gyrus．
（D）it contains the visual radiation．
（E）it contains Wernicke’s speech area．
14．All of the following statements concerning split－brain syndrome are correct EXCEPT
（A）the patientis alexic in the left visual fields．
（B）the patient，when blind folded，cannot correctly name an object placed in the left hand．
（C）the patient，when blind folded，cannot correctly name an object placed in the right hand．
（D）the patient，when blind folded，cannot match an object held in one hand with that held in the other hand．
（E）the patient，if tested rapidly，cannot match an object seen in the right half of the visual field with one seen In the left half
15．All of the following statements concerning the neocortex are correct EXCEPT
（A）it represents 90％ of the cerebral mantle．
（B）it is a six－layered cortex．
（C）it gives rise to the pyramidal tract．
（D）it includes the olfactory cortex．
（E）it contains the giant cells of Betz．
16．AJI of the following statements concerning the allocortex are correct EXCEPT
（A）it represents 10％ of the cortical mantle．
（B）it is a three－layered cortex．
（C）it includes paleocortex．
（D）it includes archicortex．
（E）it includes visual cortex．
17．Lesions of the frontal lobes may give rise to all of the following EXCEPT
（B）UMN lesion signs．
（E）sucking，groping，and grasping reflexes．
18. The hippocampal formation includes all of the following structures EXCEPT the
(A) dentate gyrus.
(B) cornu ammonis.
19. All of the fOllowing statements concerning the hippocampal formation are correct EXCEPT
(A) it is a three-layered paleocortex.
(B) it receives mossy fiber input from the dentate gyrus.
(C) the output cell is the pyramidal neuron.
(D) major input is via the entorhinal cortex.
(E) major output is via the fornix.
20. Which of the following signs and symptoms is not related to Xiuver-Bucy syndrome?
(B) Psychic blindness
(E) Amnestic confabulation
21. All of the following statements concerning the primary olfactory cortex are correct EXCEPT
(A) it receives olfactory input from the lateral olfactory stria.
(B) it projects to the thalamus.
(C) it projects to the amygdala.
(D) it includes the entorhinal cortex.
(E) it includes the prepiriform and periamygdaloid cortices.
22. All of the following statements concerning the olfactory tract are correct EXCEPT
(A) it is a telencephalic structure.
(B) it contains a nucleus.
(C) it projects fibers to the anterior commissure.
(D) it projects via the lateral olfactory stria to the primary olfactory cortex.
(E) it conducts fibers to the thalamus.
23. All of the fOllowing statements concerning taste receptor cells are correct EXCEPT they
(A) are found in the palate.
(B) mediate a SVA modality.
(C) are innervated by the vagal nerve.
(D) are innervated by fibers that traverse the chorda tympani.
(E) project to the solitary tract of the medulla.
24. The taste pathway includes all of the following way stations EXCEPT
(A) the geniculate ganglion.
(B) the semilunar ganglion.
(C) the solitary nucleus.
(D) cortical area 43.
(E) the central tegInental tract.
25. All of the following statements concerning the circuit of Papez are correct EXCEPT
(A) the hippocampal formation projects via the fornin to the mamillary body.
(B) the mamillothalamic tract interconnects the mamillary body and the anterior nucleus of the thalamus.
(C) the anterior nucleus of the thalamus projects to the cingUlate gyrus.
(D) the mamillary nucleus prOjects via the fornix to the hippocampal formation.
(E) the cingulate gyI'us projects via the entorhinal cortex to the hippocampal formation.
26. The thalamus receives precortical sensory input from all of the fOllowing modalities EXCEPT
(A) general somatic sense.
(E) olf action.
27. Which of the following thalamic nuclei has a motor function?
(A) Lateral dorsal nucleus
(B) Mediodorsal nucleus
(C) Ventral lateral nucleus
(D) Ventral posterior nucleus
(E) Lateral posterior nucleus
28. All of the following statements concernin the mediodorsal nucleus are correct EXCEir
(A) it receives input from the amygdaloid nucleus.
(B) it receives input from the intralaminar nuclei
(C) it is part of the limbic system
(D) it is part of the extrapyramidal motor system.
(E) it has reciprocal connections with the prefrontal cortex.
29. All of the fOllowing statements concerning the lateral geniculate body are correCt EXCEPT
(A) it projects to the lingUal gyrus.
(B) it prOjects to the cuneus.
(C) it receives input from the retina.
(D) it receives input from the lateral lemniscus
(E) it receives its blood supply from the anterior choroidal artery
30. Spinothalamic fibers project to which one of the following thalamic nuclei?
(A) Ventral posteromedial (VPM) nucleus
(C) Ventral anterior nucleus
(D) Ventral posterolateral (VPL) nucleus
(E) Anterior nucleus
31. Cerebellar fibers project to which one of the
following thalamic nuclei?
(A) VPM nucleus
(B) Lateral dorsal nucleus
(C) Lateral posterior nucleus
(D) Ventral lateral nucleus
(E) Anterior nucleus
32. The globus pallidus projects to which one set of thalamic nuclei?
(A) Centromedian, ventral anterior, and ventral lateral nuclei
(B) Ventral anterior, ventral lateral, and anterior nuclei
(C) Ventral lateral, lateral dorsal, and lateral posterior nuclei
(D) Mediodorsal, VPL, and VPM nuclei
(E) Centromedian, lateral dorsal, and lateral ventral nuclei
33. All of the following statements concerning the the pulvinar are correct EXCEPT
(A) it is the largest nucleus of the thalamus.
(B) it receives input from the visual association cortex.
(C) it receives input from the superior colliculus.
(D) it has reciprocal connections with the parietal association cortex.
(E) a lesion results in a contralateral hemianopia.
34. Which of the fOllowing statements concerning the lateral horn of the spinal cord is true?
(A) It contains preganglionic parasympathetic neurons.
(B) lt gives rise to a spinocerebellar tract.
(C ) It is present at all spinal cord levels.
(D) It gives rise to preganglionic sympathetic fibers.
(E) It is most prominent at sacral levels.
35. Which of the fOllowing statements concerning the nucleus dorsalis of Clarke is true?
(A) It is found in the ventral horn.
(B) lt projects to the cerebellum.
(C) It is present at all spinal levels.
(D) It is most prominent at upper cervical leve1s.
(E) It is homologous to the cuneate nucleus of the medulla.
36. Each of the following statements concerning spinal cord nuclei is true EXCEPT
(A) the paraspopathetic nucleus is located in the lateral horn.
(B) the intermediolateral nucleus extends from T1 to L3.
(C) the spinal accessory nucleus extends from C1 to C6.
(D) the phrenic nucleus extends from C3 to C6.
(E) the spinal border cells eXtend from L1 to S3.
37. Each of the following statements concerning the fasciculus cuneatus is true EXCEPT
(A) its neurons of origin are in the dorsal horn.
(B) its fibers project to a nucleus in the medulla.
(C ) it contains input from the upper extremity.
(D) it mediates two-point tactile discrimination.
(E) its fibers do not decussate in the spinal cord.
38. Each of the fOllowing statements concerning the spinocerebellar tracts is true EXCEPT
(A) the dorsal spinocerebellar tract originates from the nucleus dorsalis of Clarke.
(B) the spinocerebellar tracts receive input from muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs.
(C) the cuneocerebellar tract originates in the medulla.
(D) the ventral spinocerebellar tract originates from the spinal border cells of the ventral horns.
(E) the ventral spinocerebellar tract enters the cerebellum through the inferior cerebellar peduncle.
39. Each of the following statements concerning the lateral spinothalamic tract is true EXCEPT
(A) it mediates pain and temperature sensation.
(B) its second~order neurons are located in the dorsal horn.
(C) it decussates in the ventral white commissure.
(D) axons of its first-order neurons enter the dorsolateral tract of Lissauer.
(E) it projects to the ventral posteromedial (VPM) nucleus of the thalamus.
40. Each of the fOllowing statements concerning the pons is true EXCEPT
(A) it contains the nucleus that innervates the stapedius muscle.
(B) it contains the nucleus that innervates the tensor tmppani muscle.
(C) it contains the mesencephalic nucleus.
(D) it contain8 a nucleus that innervates the parotid gland.
(E) it contains the center for lateral conjugate gaze.
44. In the brainstem, intra-axial fibers of the facial nerve are closely associated with all of the following structures EXCEPT the
(A) abducent nucleus.
(B) medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF).
(C) medial 1emniscus.
(D) spinal nucleus and tract of CN V
(E) middle cerebellar peduncle.
45. Which of the following groups of cranial nerves is closely related to the corticospinal tract?
(A) CN III, CN IV and CN V
(B) CN III, CN V and CN VII
(C) CN III, CN VI, and CN VIII
(D) CN III, CN VI, and CN xiI
(E) CN III, CN ry, and CN X
46. All of the following structures are present in the cavernous sinus or its lateral wall EXCEPT
(A) the ophthalmic nerve.
(B) the maxillary nerve.
(C) the mandibular nerve.
(D) cranial nerves III, IV and VI.
(E) postganglionic spopathetic fibers.
47. The mandibular nerve innervates all of the following structures EXCEPT the
(A) mucosa of the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.
(B) posterior belly of the digastric muscle.
(C) tensor tympani muscle.
(D) external auditory meatus.
(E) muscles of mastication.
48. Each of the fol1owing statements concerning the ventral trigeminothalamic tract is true EXCEPT
(A) it mediates pain and temperature sensation from the head.
(B) it receives input from cranial nerves VII,IX, and X.
(C ) second-order neurons are found in the caudal spinal trigeminal nucleus.
(D) it is a crossed pathway.
(E) decussation of pain fibers occurs in the pons.
49. Each of the fOllowing structures is part of the auditory pathway EXCEPT the
(A) spiral ganglion.
(B) cochlear nuclei.
(C) trapezoid body..
(D) inferior olivary nucleus.
(E) nucleus of the inferior colliculus.
50. The primary auditory cortex is located in
(A) the frontal operculum.
(B) the postcentral gnus.
(C) the superior parietal lobule.
(D) the inferior parietal lobule.
(E) the transverse temporal gyi'
51. Each of the following statements concerning vestibular nuclei is true EXCEPT
(A) they receive input from semicircular ducts.
(B) they receive input from the saccule and utricle.
(C) they receive input from the spiral ganglion.
(D) they prOject to cranial nerves III, W and VI.
(E) they have reciprocal connections with the flocculonodular lobe.
52. Each of the fOllowing statements concerning the MLF is true EXCEPT
(A) it contains ascending and descending fibers.
(B) it contains vestibular fibers that project to all ocular motor nuclei.
(C) it is very close to the internal genu of CN VII.
(D) it is very close to the motor nucleus of CN V
(E) it extends from the spinal cord to the midbrain.
53. Each of the fOllowing statements concerning the vestibular nerve is true EXCEPT
(A) it consists of the central processes of bipolar neurons.
(B) it traverses the internal auditory meatus.
(C) it projects direct fibers to the cerebellar cortex.
(D) it enters the brainstem at the pontomedullary junction.
(E) it does not contain efferent fibers.
n the geniculate ganglion and the chorda tympani results in the loss of all of the following EXCEPT
(A) taste sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.
(B) innervation of the lacrimal gland.
(C) innervation of the sublingUal and submandibular glands.
(D) the corneal reflex.
(E) the ability to wrinkle the brow on the affected side.
55. Each of the following statements concerning the nucleus ambigUus is true EXCEPT
(A) it contains preganglionic parasympathetic neurons that innervate the heart.
(B) it innervates the musculature of the larynx and pharynX.
(C) it is located near the hypoglossal nucleus.
(D) it is located near the spinal trigeminal nucleus and tract.
(E) it sends Sun fibers to cranial nerves IX, X, and Xl.
56. Each of the fOllowing statements concerning Purkinje cells is true EXCEPT
(A) they project to the cerebellar nuclei.
(B) they project to the thalamus.
(C) they project to the vestibular nuclei.
(D) they are inhibited by basket cells.
(E) their neurotransmitter is GABA.
57. Each of the following statements concerning the cerebellar peduncles is true EXCEPT
(A) the superior cerebellar peduncle is the major efferent pathway from the cerebellum.
(B) the middle cerebellar peduncle attaches the cerebellum to the midbrain.
(C) tlle inferior cerebellar peduncle includes the juxtarestiform body.
(D) the ventral spinocerebellar tract is found in the superior cerebellar peduncle.
(E) the neocortex influences the cerebellum via the middle cerebellar peduncle.
58. The neocerebellum projects to the motor cortex via the
(A) anterior thalamic nucleus.
(B) ventral anter1or nucleus.
(C) ventral lateral nucleus.
(D) lateral dorsal nucleus.
(E) lateral posterior nucleus.
59. The dentatothalamic tract decussates in the
(B) rostral midbrain.
(C) caudal midbrain.
(D) rostral pons.
(E) caudal pons.
60. Each of the fOllowing statements concerning the retina is true EXCEPT
(A) it is of diencephalic origin.
(B) the fovea centralis contains rods and cones
(C) the optic disk is the blind spot.
(D) the macula lutea surrounds the fovea centralis.
(E) the retina has a dual blood supply
61. A pituitary tumor is most frequently associated with
(A) a homonymous hemianopia
(B) a homonymous quadrantanopia.
(C) a bitemporal hemianopia.
(D) a binasal hemianopia.
(E) an altitudinal hemianopia.
62. Resection of the anterior portion of the left temporal lobe is most frequently associate with a
(A) left homonymous hemianopiai.
(B) right upper homonymous quadrantanopi4
(C) right lower homonymous qua)rantanopii
(D) left upper homonymous quadrantanopi,
63. Each of the following statements concerning transection of the left optic tract is true EXCEPT
(A) the direct pupillary light reflex is unaffected.
(B) the consensual pupillary light reflex is unaffected.
(C) it causes ganglion cell degeneration in the right nasal hemiretina.
(D) it causes cell degeneration in the right lateral geniculate body.
(E) it causes a right homonymous hemianopia.
64. Each of the fOllowing statements concerning ocular motility is true EXCEPT
(A) the frontal eye field is located in the inferior frontal gyrus.
(B) the occipital eye field is located in areas 18 and 19
(C) the subcortical center for vertical conjugate gaze is located at the junction of the midbrain--diencephalon.
(D) the subcortical center for lateral conjugate gaze is located in the abducent nucleus.
(E) stimulation of the frontal eye field causes contralateral deviation of the eyes.
65. Each of the following statements concerning autonomic innervation of the eye is true
(A) stimulation of the intermediolateral cell column at T1 causes ipsilateral mydriasis.
(B) transection of the cervical sympathetic trunk causes ptosis and miosis.
(C) stimulation of the Edinger-Westphal nucleus causes miosis and ptosis.
(D) destruction of the ciliary ganglion interrupts both sympathetic and parasympathetic postganglionic fibers en route to the globe.
(E) destruction of the superior cervical ganglion causes ipsiIateral Horner's srodrome,
66. Parasympathetic stimulation causes all of the following reactions EXCEPT
(A) profuse watery secretion of the salivary glands.
(B) constriction of the lumina of the bronchial tubes.
(D) increased gastrointestinal motility.
(E) penile erection.
67. A person receives a shallow knife wound just behind the sternocleidomastoid muscle and about 1 1/2 inches above the clavicle. There is an immediate numbness of the skin below the wound and over the acromion and clavicle. The nerve most likely severed was the
68. Which of the following is a dorsal ramus of a spinal nerve?
B.Transverse cervical n.
C.Great auricular n.
D.Greater occipital n.
E.Lesser occipital n.
69．A 20 year old man was brought into the emergency room with a stab wound in the upper part of the neck. Although there was no major damage done, he lost sensation from the skin over the angle of the jaw. Which nerve has been cut?
B.Transverse cervical n.
C.Great auricular n.
D.Greater occipital n.
E.Lesser occipital n.
70．One of the motor components of the cervical plexus, the ansa cervicalis, innervates all of the following muscles except the:
71. Which structure or area receives NO nerve fibers from the cervical plexus?
B.Skin over the angle of the mandible
C.Skin over the external occipital protuberance
72. Which of the following statements about the cervical plexus is true?
A.It comprises spinal segments C1-C3
B.It consists solely of cutaneous nerves
C.It consists solely of ventral rami of spinal nerves
D.It supplies motor innervation to platysma
73. Sympathetic fibers in the greater thoracic splanchnic nerve arise from neuron cell bodies found in the:
E.superior mesenteric ganglion
74. Gray rami communicantes contain postganglionic sympathetic fibers that innervate which of the following structures in the thoracic region?
75. The glossopharyngeal nerve exits the skull via what opening?
76. Blockage of the flow of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) within the cerebral aqueduct (of Sylvius) normally would result in the enlargement of all of the following ventricular spaces except the:
B.Interventricular foramen (of Monro)
77. The inferior sagittal sinus is found in the free edge of what structure?
II. Explain the following terms.
Gray matter, White matter, Cortex, Medullary substance, Nucleus, Ganglion, Fasciculus, Funiculus, Nerve, Filum terminale, Brain stem, Medial lemniscus, Spinothalamic lemniscus, Lateral lemniscus, Trigeminal lemniscus, Trapezoid body, The third ventricle, The fourth ventricle, Hippocampal formation, Limbic system, The basal nuclei, Corpus striatum, The internal capsule, The epidural space, The subarachoid space, Cerebral arterial circle, Blood-brain barrier
III. Answer the following questions.
1.Narrate the composition of the spinal nerve, the types of nerve fibers in the spinal nerve and their distributions.
2.Describe which nerves supply the tongue.
3.Describe which nerves supply the eyeball.
4.Which nerve may be injuried during the fracture of the fibular neck.and narrate the clinical features of the nerve lesion,.
5.Which nerve may be injuried during the fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus,.and narrate the clinical features of the nerve lesion,.
6.Which nerve may be injuried during the fracture of the middle of the humerus,.and narrate the clinical features of the nerve lesion,.
7.Which nerve may be injuried during the fracture of the medial epicondyle of the humerus,.and narrate the clinical features of the nerve lesion.
8.Narrate the location, subdivision and passing through fibers of the internal capsule. If the internal capule is injured, describe simply the clinical features.
9. Describe the origin and the circulation of the cerebrospinal fluid.
Centeral nervous system
1. Describe the the position and external feature of the spinal cord
2. Describe the divisions of the gray matter and white matter
3. Describe the position, origin, ending and function of fasciculus grascilis, fasciculus cuneatus, spinothalamic tract, the lateral corticospinal tract and anterior corticospinal tract
4. Describe the external feature of the brain stem
5. Describe the functional classification of the nuclei of the cranial nerves in the brain stem
6. Describe the he position and function of the pyramidal tract, medial lemniscus, lateral lemniscus, trigeminal lemniscus and spinal lemniscus in the brain stem
7. Describe the the position, external feature and lobes of the cerebellum
8. Describe the name of the three pairs of cerebellar peduncles
9. Describe the the names of the cerebellar nuclei.
10. Describe the divisions of the diencephalons
11. Describe the names, fiber connections and functions of the specific thalamic nuclei (including the medial and lateral geniculate body)
12. Describe the main fissures, lobes, sulci and gyri of the surface of the cerebral hemisphere
13. Describe the organization and position of the basal ganglia
14. Describe the position and divisions of the internal capsule, the names and locations of the nerve fiber tracts in the internal capsule
15. Describe the position and functional localizations of the somesthetic area, visual area, auditory area, motor area of the cerebral cortex, the position of the language area of the cerebral cortex..
16. Describe the positions of the neurons, the name of tracts and the position of their decussationin in each part of the central nervous system, projecting areas to the cerebral cortex of the conscious deep sensory pathway and fine touch sensory pathway of the trunk and limbs.
17. Describe the positions of the neurons, the name of tracts and the position of their decussationin in each part of the central nervous system, projecting areas to the cerebral cortex of superficial sensory pathway of the trunk, limbs, head and face
18. Describe the positions of the neurons, the name of tracts and the position of their decussationin in each part of the central nervous system, projecting areas to the cerebral cortex of visual pathway
19. Describe the position of the upper and lower motor neurons of the pyramidal system, the position of the corticospinal tract and corticonuclear tract and the position of their decussationin in each part of the central nervous system
20. Describe the position and contents of the epidural space.
21. Describe the position and contents of the subarachnoid space
22. Describe the production and circulation of the cerebrospinal fluid.
23. Describe the course of the internal carotid artery, vertebral artery and basilar artery, the origins and distributions of the anterior, middle and posterior cerebral arteries
24. Describe the formation and position of the circle of the Willis
25. Describe the the position and communication of the fourth ventricle.
Peripheral nervous system
1. Describe the formation, position and distributions of phrenic nerve.
2. Describe the formation, position, main branches and distributions of the brachial plexus.
3. Describe the distributions of the ①musculocutaneous nerve, ②axillary nerve, ④ulnar nerve and ③radial nerve in arm.
4. Briefly describe the muscles which pronate and supinate the forearm and their innervation.
5. Briefly describe the innervation of the muscles and skin of the hand.
6. Describe the origin, branches and distribution of the femoral nerve.
7. Describe the origin, course and distribution of the sciatic nerve.
8. Describe the origin and distribution of the① tibial nerves, ②superficial peroneal nerve and ③deep peroneal nerves.
9. Briefly describe the innervation of the muscles which evert and invert the foot.
10. Briefly describe the main branches, functional components, and the distributions of trigeminal nerve.
11. Briefly describe the main branches, functional components, and the distributions of facial nerve.
12. Briefly describe the main branches, functional components, and the distributions of pharyngeal ner.
13. Briefly describe the main branches, functional components, and the distributions of vagus.
Visceral nervous system
1. Describe the the diference between the somatic and visceral motor nerve
2. Describe the the position of lower center of sympathetic nerve
3. Describe the the position of lower center of parasympathetic nerve
4. Describe the the diference between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve
1. Describe the the position and shape of thyroid gland
2. Describe the the position and shape of hypophysis
3. Describe the the position and shape of suprarenal gland